Birdy
Senior Member
The key difference is that while the employee worked legally during the provisional period, he wasn't hired legally. The provisional order was given to maintain the status quo until a final ruling but it didn't retroactively make the hiring legal. That's why compensation was awarded after the final ruling confirmed that the initial decision was wrong.
With Olmo, it's different. The provisional measure didn't maintain a status quo, but explicitly enabled Barcelona to legally register him. Even if the court later overturns this measure, Olmo's registration will not be retroactively illegal, because he was registered under a valid court order at the time.
Provisional measures are usually issued if there is a risk of irreparable harm. That's standard practice and standard wording.
If you're making a harm claim, you need to substantiate it. Without proving illegality, bad faith, or negligence, harm claims are dismissed. If a party is acting under a valid court order, it is presumed to be acting in good faith, and claims won't succeed unless there was a proof of fraud or the court was pressured. Different discussion entirely.
In your job example, the employee was hired illegally, which is a wrongful act and the reason compensation could be claimed. That's not the situation here since Olmo's registration was legal at the time under a valid court order.
Harm claims aren't just about whether someone feels harmed, they require proof of a wrongful act which doesn't exist in this case. There is no breach of duty.
The court didn't have to issue a provisional order. In case they didn't, Olmo wouldn't be registered and a favourable ruling would mean Barca and Olmo can sue for damages.
1) I don't think harm claims can only be made in the cases of bad faith, negligence, or fraud. That's too narrow.
Whenever there material consequences (financial first and foremost, but not only) on a legal entity (individual, club, association, etc.), then harm claims can be made.
That's not subjective, it can always be substantiated objectively. (For instance, Olmo plays an Espanyol-Barca game and scores or not/contributes to Espanyol losing the game, with Espanyol eventually relegated, etc. If the final verdict is against Olmo's registration, Espanyol have legal grounds to claim having been harmed)
2) You say at the end that Barca could sue for damages if the court did not issue the provisional order in the case the final ruling is favorable.
By the very same logic, any team (like Espanyol in my example) could likewise sue for damages in the current situation if the final ruling is unfavorable for Barca.
PS:
BTW, is there any lawyer by profession in here to confirm which one is correct?