chelsea had player less 2012, lets talk about chelsea away 2009, barca was outplayed and went through with referee on their side, they were "most dominant team in CL" until this madrid side, barca fans often like to forgot how they were outplayed, real benefit from luck because they dont give up and they are awarded with 3rd final in the row
Yes, in that game Chelsea outplayed Barca and should have went through, but only if we base it on that game. Barca dominated Chelsea big time in the first leg, and Chelsea were favored by the refs too on Camp Nou. Ballack should have been sent off and we had a clear penalty on Henry on the 70th minute and possibly red card for Bosingwa as he was last man. Overall in the tie, both sides had 3-4 major calls going against them. Chelsea was a bit more 'robbed' than Barca overall, as they did have 2 clear pens not given and arguably a 3rd one.
Chelsea was dominated by Barca in the same fashion in the first leg, with 11 vs 11, in 2012. The extra man doesn't help much when a team has 9 players cramped up in the last 20m. That's enough players to block most passing channels anyway.
The thing is that when a team that was outplayed goes through in a Cup tie, and a team is eliminated after a dominating display of football, it can only be because the small team was clinical and the dominating team failed to convert the chances.
Semantics. Sigh.
Find one instance where a more clinical team is not considered a more deserving winner than a more wasteful team.
We're talking about different things. I'm talking about dominating and playing better football. You're talking about who won, trying to imply in some way that the team who wins a football game is automatically more deserving to go through because they scored more goals. Rubbish and simplistic, and totally not looking at the 'how', but only at the 'what'.
